Yes - born in. (4th Gen)
I was 32 in '95
inspired by the "whats the reason you think jw's are in decline" thread.
my belief is that almost all the growth, at least in the western world is due to jw's having kids.
i was a 4th generation jw from birth till about age 20, so the timeframe i can comment on would be my teen years.
Yes - born in. (4th Gen)
I was 32 in '95
both the 144,000 and the "great crowd") consist of members who are:.
144,000 great crowd.
a. from every kindred and nation.
Unfortunately for 99.9% of Watchtower Witnesses, biblically speaking, there is no such thing as a Christian who is not indwelt by the Holy Spirit and is bereft of a heavenly hope.
And the .1% that do claim to be annointed (born again) still teach a gospel of two salvations - one with, and one without the new covenant. Since the apostles never taught this, they are cursed:
Gal. 1 8-9 But though we, or an angel from heaven, preach any other gospel unto you than that which we have preached unto you, let him be accursed.
9 As we said before, so say I now again, if any man preach any other gospel unto you than that ye have received, let him be accursed.
THERE IS ONLY ONE WAY TO BE JUSTIFIED IN THE NEW TESTAMENT, NOT TWO
inspired by the "whats the reason you think jw's are in decline" thread.
my belief is that almost all the growth, at least in the western world is due to jw's having kids.
i was a 4th generation jw from birth till about age 20, so the timeframe i can comment on would be my teen years.
I left in 95 - 96. I think the internet is what has stopped much new growth. Now people are just trying to figure out how much they can salvage from their family and friends....which isn't much most of the time.
in every scripture where god & jesus appear, the holy spirit is always awol/mia.. probably explains the existence of binitarians..
@ BM regarding John 1: 18 & Ex. 33: 7 (No man hath seen God)
The bible speaks of Jesus' body as a veil. Jesus was God manifest in the flesh just as God claims, only veiled.
Heb.10:20 By a new and living way, which he hath consecrated for us, through the veil, that is to say, his flesh;
Instead of a veil of cloth leading to the Most Holy in the temple, Jesus' body is now the veil leading to the Most Holy in person, literally.
"I am the door" - Jesus
in every scripture where god & jesus appear, the holy spirit is always awol/mia.. probably explains the existence of binitarians..
@BM - Ignatius was a disciple of the Apostle John. He and many other early Christian leaders correctly quote 1 Tim. 3: 16. Once a person believes God when he says we are a tri-partite being made of soul, body & spirit, it is much easier to accept who God says he is. Most people have an unbiblical view of our makeup, essentially a view that adheres to materialism. You have to take off your WT / Secular assumptions when reading the bible or you'll get no where.
Among the clearest texts in the Bible that show that Christ was both man and God is 1 Timothy 3:16. The Authorised Version translated this as:
And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.
in every scripture where god & jesus appear, the holy spirit is always awol/mia.. probably explains the existence of binitarians..
@ BM
Even many Jews prior to the birth of Jesus were expecting "God manifest in the flesh" (1 Tim. 3:16)
In the Dead Sea Scroll (DSC) 11Q13 - The messiah is equated to Jehovah. It mentions his atonement and incredibly even a following period of "grace".
I believe the Essenes all became Christan, because unlike the Pharisee, their theology was much more in line with Christian themes.
The Jews that we see after the first century (and today), are mostly Pharisees and to a lesser degrree Saducees.
Ken Johnson explains:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=l4oUyM6JSys
in every scripture where god & jesus appear, the holy spirit is always awol/mia.. probably explains the existence of binitarians..
Sea Breeze, who quoted those verses?
Several early Christian leaders in the list I posted above, didn't you see it? How did people quote a verse that was supposedly added 700 to 1300 years later?
This is the problem for deniers to answer.
Here are over a dozen separate arguments with supporting evidence defending the genuineness and cannonicity of 1 John 5: 7 :
in every scripture where god & jesus appear, the holy spirit is always awol/mia.. probably explains the existence of binitarians..
Spurious?
@ Rattigan350
Wouldn't it be hard to quote a verse that was supposedly added in the Middle Ages centuries before is was supposedly added?
in every scripture where god & jesus appear, the holy spirit is always awol/mia.. probably explains the existence of binitarians..
What about these?
May the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ, and the love of God, and the fellowship of the Holy Spirit be with you all.
Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,
As soon as Jesus was baptized, he went up out of the water. At that moment heaven was opened, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove and alighting on him. And a voice from heaven said, “This is my Son, whom I love; with him I am well pleased.”
For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. - 1 John 5: 7
Early support for traditional reading of 1 John 5: 7 :
200 AD Tertullian quoted the verse in his Apology, Against Praxeas
250 AD Cyprian of Carthage, wrote, "And again, of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost it is written: "And the three are One" in his On The Lapsed, On the Novatians, (see note for Old Latin)
350 AD Priscillian referred to it [Corpus Scriptorum Ecclesiasticorum Latinorum, Academia Litterarum Vindobonensis, vol. xviii, p. 6.]
350 AD Idacius Clarus referred to it [Patrilogiae Cursus Completus, Series Latina by Migne, vol. 62, col. 359.]
350 AD Athanasius referred to it in his De Incarnatione
398 AD Aurelius Augustine used it to defend Trinitarianism in De Trinitate against the heresy of Sabellianism
415 AD Council of Carthage appealed to 1 John 5:7 when debating the Arian belief (Arians didn't believe in the deity of Jesus Christ)
450-530 AD Several orthodox African writers quoted the verse when defending the doctrine of the Trinity against the gainsaying of the Vandals. These writers are:
A) Vigilius Tapensis in "Three Witnesses in Heaven"
B) Victor Vitensis in his Historia persecutionis [Corpus Scriptorum Ecclesiasticorum Latinorum, Academia Litterarum Vindobonensis, vol. vii, p. 60.]
C) Fulgentius in "The Three Heavenly Witnesses" [Patrilogiae Cursus Completus, Series Latina by Migne, vol. 65, col. 500.]
500 AD Cassiodorus cited it [Patrilogiae Cursus Completus, Series Latina by Migne, vol. 70, col. 1373.]
550 AD Old Latin ms r has it
550 AD The "Speculum" has it [The Speculum is a treatise that contains some good Old Latin scriptures.]
750 AD Wianburgensis referred to it
800 AD Jerome's Vulgate has it [It was not in Jerome's original Vulgate, but was brought in about 800 AD from good Old Latin manuscripts.]
1000s AD miniscule 635 has it
1150 AD minuscule ms 88 in the margin
1300s AD miniscule 629 has it
157-1400 AD Waldensian (that is, Vaudois) Bibles have the verse
1500 AD ms 61 has the verse
Even Nestle's 26th edition Greek New Testament, based upon the corrupt Alexandrian text, admits that these and other important manuscripts have the verse: 221 v.l.; 2318 Vulgate [Claromontanus]; 629; 61; 88; 429 v.l.; 636 v.l.; 918; l; r.
a little about me first: i was a 4th generation jw who had major reservations about the wt growing up, but finally got on board at age 23 when i got baptized.
spent 8 very active years in, then 8 years out as an agnostic.
got saved in 2004 and been living the born-again christian bible-believing life ever since.
A physical resurrection would be bringing a dead person back to life, whether in their existing body or a new one. A spiritual resurrection would be one where the dead is brought back as a spirit/ghost or into a different realm than the physical (heaven/hell/etc).
@TonusOH - I think your definition closely represents JW's and XJW's view. So, I'll look at that. I appreciate everyone's comments though, even my atheist / agnostic friends.
Just want to introduce a few concepts and definitions here at first.
1. Logic is a presuppositional-based chain of rational truth statements that do not contradict each other.
2. Presuppositions are preconditions for intelligibility. They are assumptions that are present BEFORE your starts to examine anything.
3. Worldview is the lens by which data is interpreted. In other words, we all have the same data but arrive at different conclusions based on the first two concepts above, which together constitute your worldview.
Anyone have any problem with this so far?